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Author Topic:   Sheshonq I: the beginnig of a Berber dynasty
Mazigh
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posted 14 September 2005 09:08 AM     Click Here to See the Profile for Mazigh     Edit/Delete Message   Reply w/Quote
given that the fayum is part of the libyan [in the broad meaning] territory, would this mean that the fayum civilization is libyan civilization, or egyptian civilization on libyan territory ?

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ausar
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posted 14 September 2005 02:44 PM     Click Here to See the Profile for ausar     Edit/Delete Message   Reply w/Quote
Mazigh,from what I read that Fayoum was largely uninhabited during the dyanastic era. Untill it was cleared for cultivation by Amenemhet III during the 12th dyansty.

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Mazigh
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posted 14 September 2005 04:14 PM     Click Here to See the Profile for Mazigh     Edit/Delete Message   Reply w/Quote
do you mean that some parts were inhabited while the largest part wasn't inhabited ?

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Serpent Wizdom
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posted 14 September 2005 04:26 PM     Click Here to See the Profile for Serpent Wizdom     Edit/Delete Message   Reply w/Quote
quote:
Originally posted by Mazigh:
the egyptians and the berbers aren't caucasians. because their languages don't belong to the caucasian languages.

the caucasians are named after "Caucasus", because they are believed to be originated from that region. de modern caucasian language are the indo-european languages who spread in europa in the period of 5000 b.C.. this would mean that the caucasian race would originate from the Caucasus in asia.
but the egyptian and the berber languages aren't indo-europeans (caucasians), but afro-asiatic languages [hamo-semitic language]. those languages are believed to be originated from africa maybe, from the modern region of etheopia.

but some regions are not affiliated with any language, like as the basque language wich is sometime affiliated with the berber language. and therefor, it is broadly affiliated with the idero-caucasian language [i have no enough knowledge]. the berber language is also not very clear, how ever it belongs to the afro-asiatic language. probably, it changed through the lang period in north africa and the influences of other non-berber speakings.
the berber language is believed to be appeared with the capsian [named after the tunisian city "gafsa"] people [about 7000 b.C, if i'm not mistaken], but north africa was already inhabited by the ibero-maurisains in the northern coastal regions of north africa, those idero-maurisians [combination of the two names: iberina peninsula + the maures (widerspread berber tribe in the period of the romans)] who are also know as "oranians" [named after the algerian city: "oran"] inhabited the northern coasts of north africa in the period about "20000 b.C" and they were influenced by the capsian culture, and it goes without saying that the ibero-maurisian language would influence the capsian language...

thus, there is no reason to say the egyptians are caucasians. [i just try to analyze, and the correction are welcom]


Don't even waste your time on this one!! The self-hating nut is not teachable. Just completely ignore him like alot of us have begun to do.

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