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Can you make my blue eyes black?
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by The Explorer: [QB] [QUOTE]Originally posted by meninarmer: [QUOTE]Originally posted by Explorateur: [QUOTE]Originally posted by Knowledgeiskey718: ScienceDaily (Jan. 31, 2008) — New research shows that people with blue eyes have a single, common ancestor. A team at the University of Copenhagen have tracked down a genetic mutation which [b]took place 6-10,000 years ago and is the cause of the eye colour of all blue-eyed humans[/b] alive on the planet today.... The “switch”, which is located in the gene adjacent to OCA2 does not, however, turn off the gene entirely, but rather limits its action to reducing the production of melanin in the iris – effectively “diluting” brown eyes to blue. Limited genetic variation Variation in the colour of the eyes from brown to green can all be explained by the amount of melanin in the iris, but blue-eyed individuals only have a [b]small degree of variation[/b] in the [b]amount of melanin[/b] in their eyes. “From this we can conclude that all blue-eyed individuals are linked to the same ancestor,” says Professor Eiberg. “They have all inherited the same switch at exactly the same spot in their DNA.” Brown-eyed individuals, by contrast, have considerable individual variation in the area of their DNA that controls melanin production.[/QUOTE]Questions: 1)Where did this genetic mutation in a single common ancestor occur? Are we to assume that the girl below, shares this same common ancestor with a pale-skin blue eyed person, as exemplified in the image below, i.e. that of some pale-skin person's eye? [IMG]http://forum.blackhairmedia.com/uploads/temp/20060924_165313_20060729_125729.jpg[/IMG] [IMG]http://www.sciencedaily.com/images/2008/01/080130170343.jpg[/IMG] If so, what are we told about the uniparental marker that is strongly suggestive of this individual ancestor? Now of course, [b]that the level of melanin in the eyes is the cause of this electromagnetic illusion of the eye, as noted in the earlier posts -- is understood[/b], but when it is said that there is "limited" genetic variation... 2)then it has to be assumed that there are variations nonetheless, no? 3) Is not possible that more variations allow for the amount of melanin that impart the electromagnetic illusion of 'brownness' than that of "blue", and yet, imply that the latter need not necessarily be the product of a UEP? Last but not least, 4)Was the sampling sufficiently comprehensive globally; and if so, are we told anything about the makeup of this comprehensive global sampling that had been undertaken? [/QUOTE]Of course, the mutation began in Africa and part of the Albinism gene. Blue eyes are a defect associated with minimal melanin production due to OCA1 & 2 Albinism. As with skin, melanin is present in the eye to accomplish two main functions. One, to protect the eye from damage by free radicals. Two, to convert radiation to electrical impulse. The decrease in melanin adversely affects both of these primary functions. This is true with either African Albinos or Europeans. You may utilize and sampling of any population having Albinism. Blue/green/hazel eyes along with minimal to no skin melanin are primary detection symptom in Albinism. I hope this answers your questions. :cool: [/QUOTE]As a matter of fact, your response tells me that you either didn't read my questions, or you didn't understand them. Hint: read the highlighted, and then re-read the questions that seek answers. [/QB][/QUOTE]
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