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Author Topic: Orientalist Paintings
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*** CAUTION: SOME NUDITY!! ***

Enjoy!! [Smile]


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The above 10 pictures were taken from the website

http://www.hethert.org/orientalist_paintings.htm

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Whatbox
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Don't know if it's considered 'orientalist', but this depiction of the Vili Kingdom of Loango was posted before:

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from: here

More:

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btw, when it comes to other folk, like the Ashante, Ife, Beninian, or Kemetians, I prefer the authentic and original stuff:

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Whatbox
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The AEs, in their art are nice too [Smile] :

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Whatbox
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More AE art:

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And I notice the men's/boy's garb looks about familiar, another pic from Loango we have:

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Whatbox
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Some things I notice about Egyptian art in general including all of the above photos (except the first AE man I posted and perhaps a few in the smaller resolution pics I posted):

is that the ancient Egyptians seem to love wearing white, and either shaved their heads or wore wigs.

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Ex:

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And most people get fooled into thinking it's real hair.

Especially on this pic!:

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^^NOT REAL HAIR!! A head piece! [Big Grin]

But that's understandable, unlike the time someone that one phaoroh's tall bright yellow head piece was his hair! (can't find the pic unfortunately)

Don't know about this Princess, though:

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Oh yeah, and my method of telling [Big Grin]

I'm not psychic: you can tell when it's their real hair by looking for their ears. If you can see them, then it may not be a wig.

Also use common sense: these guys show their ears, but their obviously wearing headdresses.

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LOL .. you know what, I'll try and find some pictures of folks who don't fit these standards ... they don't wear white, they show their hair....

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Whatbox
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best I could do:

Ramses here isn't in white:

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Neither is Imhotep:

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This girl shows her real hair:

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and so does this guy:

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And these guys! (older workers TL - there's nudity)

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No traditional clothe in Egyptian martial arts training:

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Whatbox
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You may also notice that the man is placed before the women, with respect to the direction they're facing.

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..In Mdu Ntr...

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Is it because behind every great man, there's simply a woman? Is it sexist?

Is this always the case??

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quote:
Originally posted by Myra Wysinger:
From the artist point of view it illustrates that Kemet wasn't a sexist society.

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...but most of the time, you'll find, Kemetians had things in order. (just joking, women in front of men is just fine)

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btw, if one is observant, one will notice that some of the people (quite a few) in the above pictures show their ears, which contradicts nothing I've said earlier.

It's just likely they were showin their real hair, like these ladies:

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and unlike these ones:

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peace, I'm quite done postin pics ... for a while..

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Hm, this thread was about Orientalist paitings????

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Orientalism

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Whatbox
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^Thanx for the link!

Sorry, uhh.. I got a little carried away there..

with the Ancient iconography.

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Mod. Henu or any other mod, please remove my posts excluding my first one and this one.

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But my first pictures were oriental, right??

I mean, I know that the term 'Oriental' can refer to 'things Eastern', but if you notice, 'the East' rarely includes anything outside of Asia (and the pacific Islands) and is a shifty definition that (in Asia) - it can even mean anything outside of Europe.

You posted orientalist paintings of Egyptians.

Now say, Damuscus

http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/7/76/Anonymous_Venetian_orientalist_painting%2C_The_Reception_of_the_Ambassadors_in_Damascus%27%2C_1511%2C_the_Louvre.jpg

is in the East, but I've even seen pictures of Algeria and elsewhere in North Africa labeled as orientalist:

I think Egypt:

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the next to pictures are of Algerians:  -

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Or did you mean name this thread 'Egyptian Orientalist panints'? (lovely pictures by the way, though I've seen them before..)

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There you go, Alive, great contributions! [Smile] Well since this is an Egyptology forum I was more focused on paintings showing scenes of the Ancient Egyptians. I wish I was able to afford one of them lol!!

Hey if you find more links to such paintings be so kind and post them on here. Thanks a bunch!! [Wink]

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'Shahrazat
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This is Jean Leon Gerome's 'A Coffee Shop in Ottomans' Cairo' painting.

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Nebsen
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I had about 30 years or so ago, a art book called "The Orientalist," with a lots of the same paintings on this post. They also showed wonderful paintings of the Moors which were African ( Black) in depiction.

I believe the term "Orientalist" was a way to try & explain or frame all that was Egyptian by way of the east. Again to take Egypt out of Africa & make her a providence of the Middle East & fare East, esp. in the 19th Century. [Wink]

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Doug M
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Orientalist paintings of the Moors generally depict them as blacks, where as orientalist paintings of ancient Egypt generally depict them as white.... go figure. Much of Moorish culture is a direct descendant of ancient Egyptian culture.
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Ausarian
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quote:
Originally posted by Doug M:

Much of Moorish culture is a direct descendant of ancient Egyptian culture.

Examples?
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Doug M
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quote:
Originally posted by Ausarian:
quote:
Originally posted by Doug M:

Much of Moorish culture is a direct descendant of ancient Egyptian culture.

Examples?
Writing, architecture, landscaping, science and so on. Put it this way, the culture of Northwest Africa from after the Muslim invasions was a product of older cultural traditions from Egypt mixed with Persian and Greek elements. However, the culture and style of the North African Islamic culture was distinct from that elsewhere in the Islamic world and much of that distinction comes from the local traditions that influenced the Islamic community in North Africa. And the most prominent of the local cultural traditions was that of Egypt. A lot of the cultural traditions in North West Africa actually trace their roots back to North East Africa and the Sahara.

The fancy gardens, the pottery, the inlaid furniture, the clothing, the architecture and many other aspects of Moorish culture directly trace their roots back to Egypt. But many of these elements also have roots from Arabia, Persia, Babylon and India as well.

Pottery styles from AE which remind me a lot of Moroccan and other north African pottery:

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Inlaid furniture which was a significant part of the Moorish style:

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The artwork and detail that covered every surface of many buildings and major monuments:

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With some of the decorative details reminding me a lot of the patterns in AE art (especially some tile patterns of North West Africa):

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The clothing, including the white linen garments and heavily striped garments and head coverings, which are HIGHLY reminiscent of AE art work:

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Doug M
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Compared with Moorish stuff from Morocco:

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All of which is basically a more modern version of ancient Egyptian fiaence pottery.

And this is Moroccan furniture:

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Which again are modern versions of ancient Egyptian painted and inlaid furniture styles.

You must keep in mind that much of the material culture of Northwest Africa is a fairly RECENT occurrence, meaning developing within the last 2000 years from many older AFRICAN traditions, including Egyptian.

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Doug M
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More examples of Egyptian furniture showing inlays and painted surfaces from Tutankhamun's tomb. Since these were made of wood, most examples from the time have not survived, which is why we have to rely on painted scenes and models to get an idea of their decoration.

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Moroccan furniture (some of which is very African):

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Ausarian
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quote:
Originally posted by Doug M:
quote:
Originally posted by Ausarian:

quote:
Originally posted by Doug M:

Much of Moorish culture is a direct descendant of ancient Egyptian culture.

Examples?
Writing, architecture, landscaping, science and so on.
Can you examine in relative detail how these cultural traits *directly* come from Ancient Egypt, and accordingly, how they couldn't have arrived from elsewhere. Also, elaborate on the "so on", if you will, please.

quote:
Doug M. writes:

Put it this way, the culture of Northwest Africa from after the Muslim invasions was a product of older cultural traditions from Egypt mixed with Persian and Greek elements. However, the culture and style of the North African Islamic culture was distinct from that elsewhere in the Islamic world and much of that distinction comes from the local traditions that influenced the Islamic community in North Africa. And the most prominent of the local cultural traditions was that of Egypt. A lot of the cultural traditions in North West Africa actually trace their roots back to North East Africa and the Sahara.

Not an unreasonable observation.
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Doug M
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quote:
Originally posted by Ausarian:
quote:
Originally posted by Doug M:
quote:
Originally posted by Ausarian:

quote:
Originally posted by Doug M:

Much of Moorish culture is a direct descendant of ancient Egyptian culture.

Examples?
Writing, architecture, landscaping, science and so on.
Can you examine in relative detail how these cultural traits *directly* come from Ancient Egypt, and accordingly, how they couldn't have arrived from elsewhere. Also, elaborate on the "so on", if you will, please.

quote:
Doug M. writes:

Put it this way, the culture of Northwest Africa from after the Muslim invasions was a product of older cultural traditions from Egypt mixed with Persian and Greek elements. However, the culture and style of the North African Islamic culture was distinct from that elsewhere in the Islamic world and much of that distinction comes from the local traditions that influenced the Islamic community in North Africa. And the most prominent of the local cultural traditions was that of Egypt. A lot of the cultural traditions in North West Africa actually trace their roots back to North East Africa and the Sahara.

Not an unreasonable observation.

Arabic writing is derived from the Egyptian writing.

The gardens of Morocco and North West Africa with pools other features are MOST SIMILAR to the gardens of ancient Egypt which also featured pools and channels.

The science of the Moors was taken from the science of older cultures, which included Egypt.

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Ausarian
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Lol. This is the "relative detail" in "how these cultural traits *directly* come from Ancient Egypt, and accordingly, how they couldn't have arrived from elsewhere"?

Re: Arabic: If my recollection hasn't failed me, it is supposed to have derived from Phoenician, and hence, not directly from 'Proto-Sinaitic'; no?

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Think hard

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Doug M
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Read what I said. I did not say that no cultural traits come from elsewhere. What I said was that Moorish culture is an extension of many older African cultural traditions, including Egyptian, along with the other influences from outside of Africa.

Actually, some scholars trace arabic to Egyptian hieratic and not Phoenician:

quote:

Although there have been great changes over the four thousand years of its existence, it is still not difficult to demonstrate that modern Arabic script is the direct descendant of what we call Egyptian hieratic. The following Arabic characters are all identical or very close to their hieratic ancestors with exactly the same sounds: J, D, T, K, Q, R, H, F, S, in addition to all of the numerals, which with slight transposition come directly from ancient Egyptian hieratic. Here are some examples demonstrating the direct descent of Arabic letters from the Egyptian hieratic. In each case, two Arabic characters are presented so that you can see the true shape of the letter, i.e. without the final flourish.

From: http://www.72languages.com/hieraticrootsofarabic.php
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Ausarian
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quote:
Originally posted by Doug M:

Read what I said.

I have. It doesn't seem to be responding to what was actually asked; perhaps, you might want to read what I said.


quote:
Doug M writes:

Actually, some scholars trace arabic to Egyptian hieratic and not Phoenician:

quote:

Although there have been great changes over the four thousand years of its existence, it is still not difficult to demonstrate that modern Arabic script is the direct descendant of what we call Egyptian hieratic. The following Arabic characters are all identical or very close to their hieratic ancestors with exactly the same sounds: J, D, T, K, Q, R, H, F, S, in addition to all of the numerals, which with slight transposition come directly from ancient Egyptian hieratic. Here are some examples demonstrating the direct descent of Arabic letters from the Egyptian hieratic. In each case, two Arabic characters are presented so that you can see the true shape of the letter, i.e. without the final flourish.

From: http://www.72languages.com/hieraticrootsofarabic.php
Interesting. Does this mean that Arabic, which appears about 3rd century CE [by which time Hieratic had long been phased out], didn't evolve from Nabataean script, which in turn derives from Aramaic - a descendant of Pheonician script? Please elaborate.

Meanwhile...


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Doug M
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That chart is incorrect. Persian writing is not a descendant of Arabic.

Also, hieratic was being used for religious documents late into the Greek period, when the word was created by the Greeks.


Hieratic
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Demotic is a child of Hieratic:
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It is in hieratic and demotic that you can see the evolution and possible origins of arabic writing.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demotic_%28Egyptian%29


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From: http://www.lib.umich.edu/pap/exhibits/writing/demotic.html


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From: http://www.schoyencollection.com/papyri.htm#161

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Honi B
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Honi B
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^ The above is titled "Egyptian girl with butterfly".
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Honi B
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Honi B
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Pipe smoker

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Ausarian
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quote:
Originally posted by Doug M:

That chart is incorrect. Persian writing is not a descendant of Arabic.

Then from what script does Persian writing descend from. That it ultimately comes from "Proto-Sinaitic" is not in doubt. Please elaborate.


quote:
Doug M writes:

Also, hieratic was being used for religious documents late into the Greek period, when the word was created by the Greeks.

The keyword here is "for religious" purposes only.


quote:
Doug M posts:

It is in hieratic and demotic that you can see the evolution and possible origins of arabic writing.

Naturally, Arabic and other "Proto-Sinaitic" descendants are going to bear resemblances to Hieratic, because they all emanate from the same ancestral source. Hieratic being a cursive development of Egyptian hieroglyphs, will naturally appear to bear physical resemblances to cursive descendants of 'Proto-Sinaitic', including Arabic.


Hieratic:

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...to be compared with:

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^Comparisons between Nabataean, Aramaic, Arabic and Syriac alphabets...which brings me back to this:

Does it mean that Arabic, which appears about 3rd century CE [by which time Hieratic had long been phased out], didn't evolve from Nabataean script, which in turn derives from Aramaic - a descendant of Pheonician script? Please elaborate.

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Doug M
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What I am saying is that the origin of these cursive scripts is from heiratic and demotic not SIMPLY from proto-sinaitic. The development of the cursive styles in Egypt directly influenced the other languages like Aramaic which appeared later. This influence can be seen in the fact that scripts like Aramaic were not originally cursive and that the cursive form of these scripts is something that developed over time, from Egyptian cursive forms.
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Ausarian
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quote:
Doug M writes:

What I am saying is that the origin of these cursive scripts is from heiratic and demotic not SIMPLY from proto-sinaitic.

How? Elaborate.

Bear in mind, that it is deemed that the letters of "Proto-Sinatic" descendants had *evolved* from those of the original "Proto-Sinaitic" script, which itself -- though a descendant of Egyptic script and one that was developed deep within the Nile Valley itself -- is neither Hieratic or Hieroglyphic. This was the whole purpose of placing them under "Proto-Sinaitic" family in the first place.


And remember: The point about similarities being natural due to both the cursive nature of these evolutions/developments, and the shared ancestry between the Hieratic script family and "Proto-Sinaitic" script family. In otherwords, writings with a shared ancestral origin likely underwent similar-looking but possibly independent parallel developments, precisely because of that shared ancetral origin.

Besides, Indus Valley script phylum too has sub-phylums that developed into cursive forms; should it then be said, that these were influenced by those in the Nile Valley too?

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Ps - I hope you understand that, by "Persian", the authors of the above mentioned diagram were referring to the more modern and cursive Persian script, perhaps also understood as Farsi script.

--------------------
Think hard

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lamin
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And where does all this leave proto-Semitic which, according to many linguists--Greenberg,Ehret, etc.--has its origings in East Africa?
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Explorador
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It still leaves its origins somewhere along the Nile Valley. I was referring to proto-Sinaitic *script*, which again originates in the Nile Valley, but had found its way into the Levant, where it spurred developments of scripts for the various Semitic-speaking groups.

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The Complete Picture of the Past tells Us what Not to Repeat

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Doug M
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quote:
Originally posted by Ausarian:
quote:
Doug M writes:

What I am saying is that the origin of these cursive scripts is from heiratic and demotic not SIMPLY from proto-sinaitic.

How? Elaborate.

Bear in mind, that it is deemed that the letters of "Proto-Sinatic" descendants had *evolved* from those of the original "Proto-Sinaitic" script, which itself -- though a descendant of Egyptic script and one that was developed deep within the Nile Valley itself -- is neither Hieratic or Hieroglyphic. This was the whole purpose of placing them under "Proto-Sinaitic" family in the first place.


And remember: The point about similarities being natural due to both the cursive nature of these evolutions/developments, and the shared ancestry between the Hieratic script family and "Proto-Sinaitic" script family. In otherwords, writings with a shared ancestral origin likely underwent similar-looking but possibly independent parallel developments, precisely because of that shared ancetral origin.

Besides, Indus Valley script phylum too has sub-phylums that developed into cursive forms; should it then be said, that these were influenced by those in the Nile Valley too?

-----

Ps - I hope you understand that, by "Persian", the authors of the above mentioned diagram were referring to the more modern and cursive Persian script, perhaps also understood as Farsi script.

The direct descendants of proto-sinaitic were not cursive. Cursive writing originated in Egypt. There are no other cursive writing styles as old as heiratic or demotic. Therefore, it isn't simply the case that the influence of Egyptian writing on other written languages stopped with proto-sinaitic, there were continuous influences from Nile Valley writing systems on neighboring scripts. In fact, the Nile Valley was a virtual incubator of writing forms.

More ancient Egyptian cursive script:
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Explorador
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Doug,

Your attacks against straw horses like, "The direct descendants of proto-sinaitic were not cursive", is entertaining, but my concern at the moment are these pressing unanswered matters...

Show [not tell] me:

— how Arabic script could not possibly have developed from Nabataean script and its predecessor, but directly from Hieratic.

— That all cursive scripts, including those of the Indus Valley, could have only developed from a single ancestor: Hieratic!

--------------------
The Complete Picture of the Past tells Us what Not to Repeat

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quote:
Originally posted by Ausarian.:
Doug,

Your attacks against straw horses like, "The direct descendants of proto-sinaitic were not cursive", is entertaining, but my concern at the moment are these pressing unanswered matters...

Show [not tell] me:

— how Arabic script could not possibly have developed from Nabataean script and its predecessor, but directly from Hieratic.

— That all cursive scripts, including those of the Indus Valley, could have only developed from a single ancestor: Hieratic!

Arabic may have developed from the nabataean script, but the cursive form of the Syriac and other members of this branch of the Afro Asiatic family are derived from the Egyptian INVENTION of cursive writing. Egyptian cursive is the FIRST cursive script ANYWHERE and had a profound INFLUENCE on the development of cursive scripts around the Mediterranean. Egyptian writing is an ancestor of many of the later Afro Asiatic scripts, both in the form of the proto-sinaitic script as well as the CONCEPT of cursive scripts. Hindu scripts are a much later development.
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quote:
Doug M writes:

Arabic may have developed from the nabataean script,

In which case, it would not have developed *directly* from Egyptian writing, as you suggested earlier.


quote:
Doug M writes:

but the cursive form of the Syriac and other members of this branch of the Afro Asiatic family are derived from the Egyptian INVENTION of cursive writing.

Show me how!

I've already laid out tables for hieroglyphics, and hieratic, to be compared with Aramaic, Nabataean, Arabic, and Syriac. There, Syraic doesn't appear to be any closer to Hieratic than the others, unless...?


quote:
Doug M writes:

Egyptian cursive is the FIRST cursive script ANYWHERE and had a profound INFLUENCE on the development of cursive scripts around the Mediterranean. Egyptian writing is an ancestor of many of the later Afro Asiatic scripts both in the form of the proto-sinaitic script as well as the CONCEPT of cursive scripts.

As I said, for clarification,

Show [not tell] me:

— That all cursive scripts, including those of the Indus Valley, could have only developed from a single ancestor: Hieratic!


quote:
Doug Writes:

Hindu scripts are a much later development.

By this, I take it that you're referring to the cursive scripts? Inscribed pottery symbols, which the discoverers figure as resembling that which became "Indus script", was dated to ca. 3500 BC.
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Doug M
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The first cursive script of the sub family that produced arabic is Syriac. Syriac is a child of Aramaic, but Syriac looks NOTHING like Aramaic.

Aramaic:

 -

There is nothing in Aramaic that presages the cursive form of the Syriac script.

Syriac:

 -

However, there is a STRONG similarity between the cursive form of Syriac and Demotic, at least in form, even if the two are not closely related.

Demotic:

 -

So where did this cursive form of Syriac come from if there is no precursor for such a style in Aramaic?

To me, the only place that such a cursive form could have come from is from the oldest cursive script in existence at the time, which is demotic Egyptian. And this is just but a sample of the demotic alphabet, as there are many variations of it that remain without clear translation.

Now, lets look at time frame. The Syriac script is dated to the 2nd or 3rd century BC and is mainly a liturgical script. It split into 3 versions, partly based on a theological split within the early Christian Church. Demotic at the time of the 3rd or 4th century was largely relegated to liturgical or religious work and Egypt was an important part of the Early Christian church of the time. So it is therefore quite possible that the liturgical traditions of cursive Syriac comes from the liturgical traditions of Egypt, which played an important role in the development of Christianity.


quote:

The Syriac script is one of the myriad of Aramaic variants that appeared in the ancient Fertile Crescent around the 1st century CE. It was used to write Syriac, a dialect of the Aramaic language spoken by Assyrians, in northern Mesopotamia (the area near where the modern nations of Syria, Turkey and Iraq intersect) and particularly focused around the city of Edessa.

The earliest Syriac script is called Estrangela, whose name is derived from the Greek word strongulos meaning 'rounded'. Estrangela inscriptions date from as far back as the year 6 CE, and by the 3rd century CE the Bible and Christian theological works had been translated into Syriac. As the city of Edessa became an important Christian center, Syriac spread throughout region as far as Palestine, and even travelled down the Silk Road and all the way to China.

In the year 489 CE, a schism occurred in the Syrian Christian church between the followers of Nestorius of Persia and Jacob of Edessa. This not only split the church but also started the process of splitting the Estrangela script into two branches. The western branch, known as Jacobite, or more correctly Serto, appeared around the 8th century CE and took a much more cursive look than Estrangela. The eastern branch, called Nestorian, developed out of Estrangela more slowly, only showing a slightly distinct look by the 12th century CE.

http://www.ancientscripts.com/syriac.html

quote:

Eventually the most cursive form of hieratic became the demotic which gives no hint of its hieroglyphic origin. By 600 BCE, the hieratic, which was used to write documents on papyri, was retained only for religious writing. The demotic became the every-day script, used for accounting, writing down literature, writings, etc. The following demotic inscription is from the famous Rosetta Stone. It bears no resemblance whatsoever to the hieroglyphic script. In fact, it is so cursive that it resembles more like the Aramaic scripts used around the Fertile Crescent at this time.

http://www.ancientscripts.com/egyptian.html

The portion in bold reflects the fact that a bunch of double talk is used to obscure and omit the OBVIOUS influence of Egyptian cursive writing on later cursive forms in the Afro Asiatic family of scripts.

quote:

The Aramaic language was the international trade language of the ancient Middle East between 1000 and 600 BCE, spoken from the Mediterranean coast to the borders of India. Its script, derived from Phoenician and first attested during the 9th century BCE, also became extremely popular and was adopted by many people with or without any previous writing system.

One interesting innovation in Aramaic is the matres lectionis system to indicate certain vowels. Early Phoenician-derived scripts did not have letters for vowels, and so most texts recorded just consonants. Most likely as a consequence of phonetic changes in North Semitic languages, the Aramaeans reused certain letters in the alphabet to represent long vowels. The letter 'aleph was employed to write /ā/, he for /ō/, yodh for /ī/, and waw for /ū/.

Aramaic flowered into myriads of different variants, which eventually became the script of many nations in the Middle East. One important example is the square Hebrew script. Writing, derived from Phoenician, began to appear in Palestine around the 10th century BCE, and the Old Hebrew script was one of them. However, by the 6th century BCE, an Aramaic-derived script, appropriately called the Jewish script, began to replace the Old Hebrew script. It is the Jewish script that eventually evolved into the modern square Hebrew script.

Another important Aramaic offshoot is the Nabataean script, which eventually evolved into the Arabic script.

http://www.ancientscripts.com/aramaic.html

Again a look at time frames shows a clear linkage. The Assyrians invaded Egypt in the 7th Century BCE, which is around the same time that the Aramaic language (language of Syria and Lower Mesopotamia) began to exhibit many of the more cursive forms that eventually led to Syriac (which is a written form of Assyrian). The facts make it clear that there is a linkage between the Egyptian cursive and later Assyrian derived cursive alphabets.

More evidence of the strong linkage between Assyrian, Aramaic, Demotic and Hebrew is in the finding of many Papyri spanning 3000 years in Elaphantine Egypt, called the Elephantine papyri:

quote:

The Elephantine Papyri are a collection of ancient Jewish manuscripts dating from the fifth century BCE. They come from a Jewish community at Elephantine, then called Yeb, the island in the Nile at the border of Nubia, which was probably founded as a military installation in about 650 BCE during Manasseh's reign to assist Pharaoh Psammetichus I in his Nubian campaign. The dry soil of Upper Egypt preserved documents from the Egyptian border fortresses of Elephantine and Syene (Aswan). Hundreds of these Elephantine papyri, written in hieratic and Demotic Egyptian, Aramaic, Greek, Latin and Coptic, span a period of 2000 years. Legal documents and a cache of letters survived, turned up on the local 'gray market' of antiquities starting in the late 19th century, and were scattered into several Western collections.

Though some fragments on papyrus are much older, the largest number of papyri are written in Aramaic, the lingua franca of the Persian Empire, and document the Jewish community among soldiers stationed at Elephantine under Persian rule, 495-399 BCE. The Elephantine documents include letters and legal contracts from family and other archives: divorce documents, the manumission of slaves, and other business, and are a valuable source of knowledge about law, society, religion, language and onomastics, the sometimes surprisingly revealing study of names.

From: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elephantine_papyri

quote:

The Elephantine Papyri in English: Three Millennia of Cross-Cultural Continuity and Change
This important volume contains 170 documents from the Egyptian border fortresses of Elephantine and Syene (Aswan), which yielded hundreds of papyri in hieratic, Demotic, Aramaic, Greek, Latin and Coptic, spanning a period of 3000 years. The documents include letters from legal documents and accounts from family and other archives, and are thus an invaluable source of knowledge of epistolography, law, society, religion, language and onomastica in this unique site and over this long period of time to scholars of varied disciplines. The volume contains five sections, each containing carefully translated and extensively annotated documents of one language group. Excellent cross-referencing allows the user to trace forerunners and successors. Each section is preceded by an introduction, and the book closes with a glossary of technical terms in five languages.

From: http://www.amazon.com/Elephantine-Papyri-English-Cross-Cultural-Continuity/dp/9004101977

These papyri also document the existence of a Jewish temple at Aswan from about 5-600 BCE. This temple dates from the Saite dynasty and is supposedly the result of Psamtik I using mercenaries from Jerusalem.

Psamtik I:

 -

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Doug,

My question to you is: Do you find any similarities at all, across the alleged "Proto-Sinaitic-descended" scripts layed out in the image posted earlier, comparing Aramaic, Nabataean, Arabic and Syriac scripts?

Upon closely examining the letters in the images posted, here's my estimation of similarities based on alphabetic correspondences, not mere random resemblances of letters upon visualization:

code:
Alpha.  Demotic "Near Eastern" scripts
k- 1 0
r - 0 1
n - 1 0
m - 0 1(Nabataean)
q - 0 1
p - 0 1(first Arabic, then others)
t(dot) 0 1
b - 0 1
y - 0 0
` - 0 1 (Nabataean)
g- 0 1(Aramaic, then Nabataean)
s - 0 1(Nabataean)
l- 0 1
w- 0 .5(partial resemblance upper hand goes to that vis-ŕ-vis Arabic, when it looks like for Syriac, the curvature was not taken all the way}

Looks to me that Syriac is still more inclined towards the other Proto-Sinaitic 'sub-script' counterparts. Specifically how were you making mano a mano comparisons between the letters across the scripts, if not the way I went about it?

You make a case that Aramaic interestingly "began to exhibit many of the more cursive forms" around about the time when Assyrians invaded Egypt, but Aramaic isn't cursive. As for the Nabataean script, which allegedly developed from Aramaic, it emerged only at ca. 3rd century BC, lest you are referring to the Brahmi branch, which isn't exactly cursive either and whose dating to anywhere between ca. 6th century and 4th century isn't as clear as its more confident dating to ca. 3rd century BC. And even if one were to accept the high end dates attributed to Brahmi, Syraic is not an alleged descendant of Brahmi. Alleged cursive variants of Brahmi script appear from the 3rd century onwards, well beyond the origin date attributed to Demotic [6th century BC]. But what the heck; I'm willing to entertain a demonstration showing how Brahmi must have developed from the more cursive Demotic.

You earlier said that all cursive scripts derived from Hieratic, as opposed to Demotic, and when pressed to demonstrate how this extends to southeast Asian scripts, you're mum about it. But the question that also needs to be asked about that, is why then was Hieratic simply not adopted earlier on, as opposed to proto-Sinaitic? Hieratic had been around since the pre-dynastic era.

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quote:
Originally posted by Ausarian.:
Doug,

My question to you is: Do you find any similarities at all, across the alleged "Proto-Sinaitic-descended" scripts layed out in the image posted earlier, comparing Aramaic, Nabataean, Arabic and Syriac scripts?

Upon closely examining the letters in the images posted, here's my estimation of similarities based on alphabetic correspondences, not mere random resemblances of letters upon visualization:

code:
Alpha.  Demotic "Near Eastern" scripts
k- 1 0
r - 0 1
n - 1 0
m - 0 1(Nabataean)
q - 0 1
p - 0 1(first Arabic, then others)
t(dot) 0 1
b - 0 1
y - 0 0
` - 0 1 (Nabataean)
g- 0 1(Aramaic, then Nabataean)
s - 0 1(Nabataean)
l- 0 1
w- 0 .5(partial resemblance upper hand goes to that vis-ŕ-vis Arabic, when it looks like for Syriac, the curvature was not taken all the way}

Looks to me that Syriac is still more inclined towards the other Proto-Sinaitic 'sub-script' counterparts. Specifically how were you making mano a mano comparisons between the letters across the scripts, if not the way I went about it?

You make a case that Aramaic interestingly "began to exhibit many of the more cursive forms" around about the time when Assyrians invaded Egypt, but Aramaic isn't cursive. As for the Nabataean script, which allegedly developed from Aramaic, it emerged only at ca. 3rd century BC, lest you are referring to the Brahmi branch, which isn't exactly cursive either and whose dating to anywhere between ca. 6th century and 4th century isn't as clear as its more confident dating to ca. 3rd century BC. And even if one were to accept the high end dates attributed to Brahmi, Syraic is not an alleged descendant of Brahmi. Alleged cursive variants of Brahmi script appear from the 3rd century onwards, well beyond the origin date attributed to Demotic [6th century BC]. But what the heck; I'm willing to entertain a demonstration showing how Brahmi must have developed from the more cursive Demotic.

You earlier said that all cursive scripts derived from Hieratic, as opposed to Demotic, and when pressed to demonstrate how this extends to southeast Asian scripts, you're mum about it. But the question that also needs to be asked about that, is why then was Hieratic simply not adopted earlier on, as opposed to proto-Sinaitic? Hieratic had been around since the pre-dynastic era.

Yes there was a cursive form of Aramaic. It began with the growth of Aramaic as a lingua franca under the Assyrians and continued with the development of Imperial Aramaic, so named because it was the official script of the Assyrian and Babylonian empires.

quote:

From 700 BCE, the language began to spread in all directions, but lost much of its homogeneity. Different dialects emerged in Mesopotamia, Babylonia, the Levant and Egypt. However, the Akkadian-influenced Aramaic of Assyria, and then Babylon, started to come to the fore. As described in 2 Kings 18:26, Hezekiah, king of Judah, negotiates with Assyrian ambassadors in Aramaic so that the common people would not understand. Around 600 BCE, Adon, a Canaanite king, uses Aramaic to write to the Egyptian Pharaoh.

'Chaldee' or 'Chaldean Aramaic' used to be common terms for the Aramaic of the Chaldean dynasty of Babylonia. It was used to describe Biblical Aramaic, which was, however, written in a later style. It is not to be confused with the modern language Chaldean Neo-Aramaic.

[edit] Imperial Aramaic

Around 500 BCE, following the Achaemenid conquest of Mesopotamia under Darius I, Aramaic (as had been used in that region) was adopted by the conquerors as the "vehicle for written communication between the different regions of the vast empire with its different peoples and languages. The use of a single official language, which modern scholarship has dubbed Official Aramaic or Imperial Aramaic, can be assumed to have greatly contributed to the astonishing success of the Achaemenids in holding their far-flung empire together for as long as they did".[5] In 1955, Richard Frye questioned the classification of Imperial Aramaic as an 'official language', noting that no surviving edict expressly and unambiguously accorded that status to any particular language.[6] Frye reclassifies Imperial Aramaic as the lingua franca of the Achaemenid territories, suggesting then that the Achaemenid-era use of Aramaic was more pervasive than generally thought.

Imperial Aramaic was highly standardised; its orthography was based more on historical roots than any spoken dialect, and the inevitable influence of Persian gave the language a new clarity and robust flexibility. For centuries after the fall of the Achaemenid Empire (in 331 BCE), Imperial Aramaic — or near enough for it to be recognisable — would remain an influence on the various native Iranian languages. Aramaic script and — as ideograms — Aramaic vocabulary would survive as the essential characteristics of the Pahlavi writing system.[7]

One of the largest collections of Imperial Aramaic texts is that of the Persepolis fortification tablets, which number about five hundred.[8] Many of the extant documents witnessing to this form of Aramaic come from Egypt, and Elephantine in particular. Of them, the best known is the Wisdom of Ahiqar, a book of instructive aphorisms quite similar in style to the biblical book of Proverbs. Achaemenid Aramaic is sufficiently uniform that it is often difficult to know where any particular example of the language was written. Only careful examination reveals the occasional loan word from a local language.

A group of thirty Aramaic documents from Bactria have been recently discovered. An analysis was published in November 2006. The texts, which were rendered on leather, reflect the use of Aramaic in the fourth-century-BCE Achaemenid administration of Bactria and Sogdiana.[9]

From: http://static.wikipedia.org/new/wikipedia/en/articles/a/r/a/Aramaic_language.html


quote:

Semitic language originally spoken by the ancient Aramaeans. The earliest Aramaic texts are inscriptions in an alphabet of Phoenician origin found in the northern Levant dating from c. 850 to 600 BC. The period 600 – 200 BC saw a dramatic expansion of Aramaic, leading to the development of a standard form known as Imperial Aramaic. In later centuries, as "Standard Literary Aramaic," it became a linguistic model. Late (or Classical) Aramaic (c. AD 200 – 1200) has an abundant literature, both in Syriac and in Mandaic (see Mandaeanism). With the rise of Islam, Arabic rapidly supplanted Aramaic as a vernacular in South Asia. Modern Aramaic (Neo-Aramaic) comprises West Neo-Aramaic, spoken in three villages northeast of Damascus, Syria, and East Neo-Aramaic, a group of languages spoken in scattered settlements of Jews and Christians in southeastern Turkey, northern Iraq, and northwestern Iran, and by modern Mandaeans in the Shatt Al-'Arab. Since c. 1900 persecution has forced most contemporary East Neo-Aramaic-speakers, who number several hundred thousand, into diaspora communities around the world.

From: http://www.answers.com/topic/aramaic

Again, the growth of Imperial Aramaic, as a distinct form separate from its Phoenician forebear took place at about the same time as the growth and expansion of Assyria and its conquest of Egypt in 600 BC. Evidence for Imperial Aramaic comes mainly from Egypt in the body of the Elephantine papyri mentioned earlier.

http://books.google.com/books?id=pZ53zpMQNLEC&pg=PA18&lpg=PA18&dq=Imperial+Aramaic&source=web&ots=-e1AszYPUB&sig=JxybsrmvgN2XCft5-gt5dGIcKEE&hl=en&sa=X&oi=book_result&resnum=12&ct= result#PPA15,M1

Time frame of Aramaic development:

 -

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Doug M
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quote:
Originally posted by Ausarian.:
Doug,

My question to you is: Do you find any similarities at all, across the alleged "Proto-Sinaitic-descended" scripts layed out in the image posted earlier, comparing Aramaic, Nabataean, Arabic and Syriac scripts?

Upon closely examining the letters in the images posted, here's my estimation of similarities based on alphabetic correspondences, not mere random resemblances of letters upon visualization:

code:
Alpha.  Demotic "Near Eastern" scripts
k- 1 0
r - 0 1
n - 1 0
m - 0 1(Nabataean)
q - 0 1
p - 0 1(first Arabic, then others)
t(dot) 0 1
b - 0 1
y - 0 0
` - 0 1 (Nabataean)
g- 0 1(Aramaic, then Nabataean)
s - 0 1(Nabataean)
l- 0 1
w- 0 .5(partial resemblance upper hand goes to that vis-ŕ-vis Arabic, when it looks like for Syriac, the curvature was not taken all the way}

Looks to me that Syriac is still more inclined towards the other Proto-Sinaitic 'sub-script' counterparts. Specifically how were you making mano a mano comparisons between the letters across the scripts, if not the way I went about it?

You make a case that Aramaic interestingly "began to exhibit many of the more cursive forms" around about the time when Assyrians invaded Egypt, but Aramaic isn't cursive. As for the Nabataean script, which allegedly developed from Aramaic, it emerged only at ca. 3rd century BC, lest you are referring to the Brahmi branch, which isn't exactly cursive either and whose dating to anywhere between ca. 6th century and 4th century isn't as clear as its more confident dating to ca. 3rd century BC. And even if one were to accept the high end dates attributed to Brahmi, Syraic is not an alleged descendant of Brahmi. Alleged cursive variants of Brahmi script appear from the 3rd century onwards, well beyond the origin date attributed to Demotic [6th century BC]. But what the heck; I'm willing to entertain a demonstration showing how Brahmi must have developed from the more cursive Demotic.

You earlier said that all cursive scripts derived from Hieratic, as opposed to Demotic, and when pressed to demonstrate how this extends to southeast Asian scripts, you're mum about it. But the question that also needs to be asked about that, is why then was Hieratic simply not adopted earlier on, as opposed to proto-Sinaitic? Hieratic had been around since the pre-dynastic era.

Actually I never said anything about southeast asian scripts. The fact remains that the first and oldest cursive script in the word originates in Egypt. Period. My only point is that not only did Egypt provide the basis of the alphabets of the Eastern Mediterranean, but it also provided the basis for the development of cursive forms in these alphabets, with the cursive form NOT being a separate and independent development.
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quote:
Doug M writes:

Again, the growth of Imperial Aramaic, as a distinct form separate from its Phoenician forebear took place at about the same time as the growth and expansion of Assyria and its conquest of Egypt in 600 BC. Evidence for Imperial Aramaic comes mainly from Egypt in the body of the Elephantine papyri mentioned earlier.

According to your wiki & affiliated links, the "Imperial Aramaic" form appeared at ca. 5th century BC, not the 6th. And even more interesting, while relatively more cursive then the earlier version, Imperial Aramaic alphabets actually appear to further developments of the original Aramaic alphabets; how does that help you, with regards to it being developed from Demotic?


quote:
Doug M writes:

quote:
Originally posted by Ausarian.:
Doug,

My question to you is: Do you find any similarities at all, across the alleged "Proto-Sinaitic-descended" scripts layed out in the image posted earlier, comparing Aramaic, Nabataean, Arabic and Syriac scripts?

Upon closely examining the letters in the images posted, here's my estimation of similarities based on alphabetic correspondences, not mere random resemblances of letters upon visualization:

code:
Alpha.  Demotic "Near Eastern" scripts
k- 1 0
r - 0 1
n - 1 0
m - 0 1(Nabataean)
q - 0 1
p - 0 1(first Arabic, then others)
t(dot) 0 1
b - 0 1
y - 0 0
` - 0 1 (Nabataean)
g- 0 1(Aramaic, then Nabataean)
s - 0 1(Nabataean)
l- 0 1
w- 0 .5(partial resemblance upper hand goes to that vis-ŕ-vis Arabic, when it looks like for Syriac, the curvature was not taken all the way}

Looks to me that Syriac is still more inclined towards the other Proto-Sinaitic 'sub-script' counterparts. Specifically how were you making mano a mano comparisons between the letters across the scripts, if not the way I went about it?

You make a case that Aramaic interestingly "began to exhibit many of the more cursive forms" around about the time when Assyrians invaded Egypt, but Aramaic isn't cursive. As for the Nabataean script, which allegedly developed from Aramaic, it emerged only at ca. 3rd century BC, lest you are referring to the Brahmi branch, which isn't exactly cursive either and whose dating to anywhere between ca. 6th century and 4th century isn't as clear as its more confident dating to ca. 3rd century BC. And even if one were to accept the high end dates attributed to Brahmi, Syraic is not an alleged descendant of Brahmi. Alleged cursive variants of Brahmi script appear from the 3rd century onwards, well beyond the origin date attributed to Demotic [6th century BC]. But what the heck; I'm willing to entertain a demonstration showing how Brahmi must have developed from the more cursive Demotic.

You earlier said that all cursive scripts derived from Hieratic, as opposed to Demotic, and when pressed to demonstrate how this extends to southeast Asian scripts, you're mum about it. But the question that also needs to be asked about that, is why then was Hieratic simply not adopted earlier on, as opposed to proto-Sinaitic? Hieratic had been around since the pre-dynastic era.

Actually I never said anything about southeast asian scripts.
Actually, you did...when you made the blanket statement that ancient cursive scripts were developments from Hieratic. By southeast Asian, I'm including cursive ancient Indian scripts, aside from Brahmi.

quote:
Doug M writes:

My only point is that not only did Egypt provide the basis of the alphabets of the Eastern Mediterranean, but it also provided the basis for the development of cursive forms in these alphabets, with the cursive form NOT being a separate and independent development.

First, you quote my posts, but almost never actually answer the specific questions you quote [including the ones highlighted above]. Rather, you seek refuge in red herrings like: The fact remains that the first and oldest cursive script in the word originates in Egypt. Period. ...in essence, needlessly reiterating that which was acknowledged in what you just quoted me.

Second, your claim that Arabic developed *directly* from ancient Egyptian script, did not withstand scrutiny.

Your claim that cursive scripts of "Near East" and "India" had to have been developments of Hieratic—simply because it was the earliest example, didn't withstand scrutiny either.

You then switched from Hieratic, and said Demotic was the basis, when it seemed that the time differentials between Hieratic and the other cursive scripts had occurred to you. Even here, your charges have yet to withstand scrutiny. You've failed to show that "Imperial Aramaic" was developed from Demotic. In fact, the mere condition of Imperial Aramaic script as that of appearing to be nothing more than the tweaking of the pre-existing Aramaic alphabets, actually hurts your case even further, not to mention that it bears even more resemblances to Nabataean and the Syraic scripts in that form. What now?

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Actually, what I originally said was:

quote:

Arabic writing is derived from the Egyptian writing.

Which you questioned and I clarified as a case of Egyptian influence on the development of cursive forms of writing in other Afro Asiatic derived scripts, ALL of which derive from Egyptian writing to begin with.

The only straw men here are those YOU are creating in trying to create TECHNICALITIES of why the development of Egyptian cursive writing was NOT influential on the development of cursive forms elsewhere in the region. I never said that these scripts "directly" developed from Egyptian writing, even though they ultimately do since they all derive from proto-sinaitic, which IS directly from Egyptian writing. What I said and what you continue to ignore is that the CURSIVE FORMS of these scripts reflect INFLUENCE from Egyptian cursive forms on the development of later cursive scripts.

As far as Brahmic script is concerned, again it IS derived from Egyptian, as it is considered to have evolved from Phoenician, which AGAIN comes from Proto-Sinaitic and is derived from Egyptian.

quote:

Brāhmī is believed by most scholars to be derived from a Semitic script such as the Imperial Aramaic alphabet, as was clearly the case for the contemporary Kharosthi alphabet that arose in a part of northwest Indian under the control of the Achaemenid Empire. Rhys Davids suggests that writing may have been introduced to India from the Middle East by traders. Another possibility is with the Achaemenid conquest in the late 6th century BCE,[citation needed] or that it was a planned invention under Ashoka as a prerequiste for his edicts.

From: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Br%C4%81hm%C4%AB_script
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akoben
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Doug I feel you bro. Ausarianstein at it again with straws. lol
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quote:
Doug M writes:

Actually, what I originally said was:

quote:

Arabic writing is derived from the Egyptian writing.


One good thing about web forums like this one, is that once you've posted and editing time elapses, you cannot take back what you "originally" said:

—Doug wrote:

Much of Moorish culture is a direct descendant of ancient Egyptian culture.

—I asked:

Examples?

—Doug answers:

Writing, architecture, landscaping, science and so on.

—I ask:

Can you examine in relative detail how these cultural traits *directly* come from Ancient Egypt, and accordingly, how they couldn't have arrived from elsewhere. Also, elaborate on the "so on", if you will, please.

—And Doug answers:

Arabic writing is derived from the Egyptian writing.

The gardens of Morocco and North West Africa with pools other features are MOST SIMILAR to the gardens of ancient Egypt which also featured pools and channels.

The science of the Moors was taken from the science of older cultures, which included Egypt


quote:
Doug M writes:

Which you questioned and I clarified as a case of Egyptian influence on the development of cursive forms of writing in other Afro Asiatic derived scripts,

Actually, you changed your claim from saying that Arabic directly derived from ancient Egyptian script to acknowledging its descent from Nabataean script, only after being pressed.

Recap: Your claims about Hieratic, and then the switch to Demotic, being used to develop cursive scripts of the "Near East" didn't withstand scrutiny.


quote:
Doug M writes:

ALL of which derive from Egyptian writing to begin with.

Saying that descendants of "Near Eastern" scripts *ultimately* derive from ancient Egypt, is a far cry from saying that they derive directly from ancient Egyptian.

quote:
Doug M writes:

The only straw men here are those YOU are creating in trying to create TECHNICALITIES of why the development of Egyptian cursive writing was NOT influential on the development of cursive forms elsewhere in the region.

Hate to break it to you, but one cannot creat a strawman out of something that hasn't been proven to have merit.

quote:
Doug M writes:

I never said that these scripts "directly" developed from Egyptian writing, even though they ultimately do since they all derive from proto-sinaitic, which IS directly from Egyptian writing.

See above - Records don't lie.

quote:
Doug M writes:

What I said and what you continue to ignore is that the CURSIVE FORMS of these scripts reflect INFLUENCE from Egyptian cursive forms on the development of later cursive scripts.

That's quite funny; considering I've been *persistently* trying to get you to prove your claim all this time...without success. That's the anti-thesis of ignoring.

quote:
Doug M writes:

As far as Brahmic script is concerned, again it IS derived from Egyptian,

OK. And...?

---

Ps -Fact is, to show that cursive scripts couldn't have been independently developed at different times and in different places, you have to demonstrate how they all come from a single common cursive ancestor. This hasn't been achieved to date.

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Sabalour
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 -

Can people here who are not familiar with this painting guess what its meaning is?

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Doug M
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quote:
Originally posted by Ausarian.:
quote:
Doug M writes:

Actually, what I originally said was:

quote:

Arabic writing is derived from the Egyptian writing.


One good thing about web forums like this one, is that once you've posted and editing time elapses, you cannot take back what you "originally" said:

—Doug wrote:

Much of Moorish culture is a direct descendant of ancient Egyptian culture.

—I asked:

Examples?

—Doug answers:

Writing, architecture, landscaping, science and so on.

—I ask:

Can you examine in relative detail how these cultural traits *directly* come from Ancient Egypt, and accordingly, how they couldn't have arrived from elsewhere. Also, elaborate on the "so on", if you will, please.

—And Doug answers:

Arabic writing is derived from the Egyptian writing.

The gardens of Morocco and North West Africa with pools other features are MOST SIMILAR to the gardens of ancient Egypt which also featured pools and channels.

The science of the Moors was taken from the science of older cultures, which included Egypt


quote:
Doug M writes:

Which you questioned and I clarified as a case of Egyptian influence on the development of cursive forms of writing in other Afro Asiatic derived scripts,

Actually, you changed your claim from saying that Arabic directly derived from ancient Egyptian script to acknowledging its descent from Nabataean script, only after being pressed.

Recap: Your claims about Hieratic, and then the switch to Demotic, being used to develop cursive scripts of the "Near East" didn't withstand scrutiny.


quote:
Doug M writes:

ALL of which derive from Egyptian writing to begin with.

Saying that descendants of "Near Eastern" scripts *ultimately* derive from ancient Egypt, is a far cry from saying that they derive directly from ancient Egyptian.

quote:
Doug M writes:

The only straw men here are those YOU are creating in trying to create TECHNICALITIES of why the development of Egyptian cursive writing was NOT influential on the development of cursive forms elsewhere in the region.

Hate to break it to you, but one cannot creat a strawman out of something that hasn't been proven to have merit.

quote:
Doug M writes:

I never said that these scripts "directly" developed from Egyptian writing, even though they ultimately do since they all derive from proto-sinaitic, which IS directly from Egyptian writing.

See above - Records don't lie.

quote:
Doug M writes:

What I said and what you continue to ignore is that the CURSIVE FORMS of these scripts reflect INFLUENCE from Egyptian cursive forms on the development of later cursive scripts.

That's quite funny; considering I've been *persistently* trying to get you to prove your claim all this time...without success. That's the anti-thesis of ignoring.

quote:
Doug M writes:

As far as Brahmic script is concerned, again it IS derived from Egyptian,

OK. And...?

---

Ps -Fact is, to show that cursive scripts couldn't have been independently developed at different times and in different places, you have to demonstrate how they all come from a single common cursive ancestor. This hasn't been achieved to date.

Actually, the only one making straw men is you. I said that much of Moorish culture is directly descended from ancient Egyptian, but much is not all and therefore, does not mean that everything in Moorish culture came from Egypt. Likewise, this includes Arabic script, which is indeed directly derived from the development of CURSIVE SCRIPTS in Egypt, which influenced the development of cursive scripts elsewhere around the Mediterranean. The part YOU are disagreeing with is that the cursive forms of Egyptian scripts had ANY influence on later scripts in the region, which is not simply an issue of what is directly versus indirectly descendant from Egyptian scripts. You are trying to find cracks or errors in my words to justify ignoring the facts that have been posted, in order to pretend that Egyptian scripts and culture did not have a profound impact on other scripts and cultures in the region, which it did.
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Explorador
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quote:
Doug M writes:

Actually, the only one making straw men is you.

Is it possible that you don't know what a strawman is?--asking you to prove your claim doesn't qualify as a strawman. Reference a dictionary.

quote:
Doug M writes:

I said that much of Moorish culture is directly descended from ancient Egyptian, but much is not all and therefore, does not mean that everything in Moorish culture came from Egypt.

You were asked to lay out specifically which ones *directly descended* from ancient Egyptian, and how so. You didn't bother answering the latter, but you did say this, with respect to the former:

Writing, architecture, landscaping, science and so on. - by Doug M

...lest you take your own words as a strawman.

quote:
Doug M writes:

Likewise, this includes Arabic script, which is indeed directly derived from the development of CURSIVE SCRIPTS in Egypt

I asked you to prove this, and you failed; rather, you were forced to retract it--because of lack of evidence, and now, to save face, you're forced to seek refuge in restating the discredited. Repeating a meritless claim is well, not a wise thing to do.

quote:
Doug M writes:

The part YOU are disagreeing with is that the cursive forms of Egyptian scripts had ANY influence on later scripts in the region

There's *nothing* to disagree with, since one cannot disagree with what has no merit to begin with. You said Arabic directly descends from ancient Egyptian. So, you were requested to prove it; you didn't. Period.

Btw, the same applies to other non-Nile Valley cursive scripts.


quote:
Doug M writes:

which is not simply an issue of what is directly versus indirectly descendant from Egyptian scripts.

Don't confuse yourself about the issue at hand; it is quite simple: your [so far meritless] claim that Arabic directly descends from anient Egyptian, along with other cursive scripts.

quote:
Doug M writes:

You are trying to find cracks or errors in my words

Believe me, finding a crack(s) in your claim required no effort; it was all too blatant to miss.

quote:
Doug M writes:

to justify ignoring the facts that have been posted

Like I said in the last post, which no doubt you never read, you make no sense: If I'm asking you to prove your claim, how can that be--even sub-standard logic--interpreted as "ignoring"?

What "facts" have been ignored? Name them.

quote:
Doug M writes:

, in order to pretend that Egyptian scripts and culture did not have a profound impact on other scripts and cultures in the region, which it did.

Rather, you are asking me to pretend to believe in the existence of something which hasn't been proven to, just so you can save face. The term for that is: wishful thinking.

My advice: Try hard to answer the pressing questions in your next post, rather than undertaking emotional off-target "fist throwing at the air". Thanx a bunch.

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Doug M
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I will make this simple.


My claim is that the cursive form of Arabic and other scripts from Syria and Palestine are DIRECTLY related to the cursive forms of Egyptian scripts, even though they are in different language families. I am not claiming that they are of the SAME language families or DIRECTLY related in a linguistic sense. The ONLY connection I am referring to is the STYLISTIC one, where CURSIVE FORMS OF WRITING are concerned, nothing else. THAT is what I meant by Arabic as directly descended from ancient Egyptian.

And AS POSTED, there are STRONG STYLISTIC similarities between the two that makes SUCH DIRECT INFLUENCE very likely.

All this distraction about straw men is irrelevant.

If you don't agree then so be it, but I know what I meant and it has not changed.

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