Between about 1150 and 850 B.C. ,large parts of Syria-Palestine were virtually free from foreign control and it was during this period that both the Hebrew Kingdoms and the independent city-state of Phonecia flourished.

The Egyptian ''connection' with this part of the world lasted intermittenly for nearly 3,000 years--- for as llong as Egypt was a major power. Yet this was not really a case of imperilism. The Egyptians rarely conquered and settled foreign territories ,for their all-pervasive religious beliefs made them unwilling to live abroad and they were terrified of dying and being buried away from the Nile

page 19

Civlizations of the Holy Land

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Originally posted by ausar:
They came originally from the southern end of the Arabian desert, and during the fourth millennium BC the first waves of them spread into Mesopotamia,Syria-Palestine and even in the Nile Valley and Delta. They mingled with,or displaced the original Neolithic peoples of Palestine, termed by them variously ''the horrors,''the ghosts; the howling people; the long necked men.

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When he says the "Arabian desert" is he talking about the Eastern desert of Egypt or the desert on the Arabian peninsula? Sometimes either of these are referred to as the Arabian desert.

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Originally posted by YuhiVII:
When he says the "Arabian desert" is he talking about the Eastern desert of Egypt or the desert on the Arabian peninsula? Sometimes either of these are referred to as the Arabian desert.

[This message has been edited by YuhiVII (edited 26 June 2005).]

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Why would egypts desert be reffered to as the Arabian Desert. Egypt is an African region not arabian. the nile does not run throught middle east it runs through Africa.

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When he says the "Arabian desert" is he talking about the Eastern desert of Egypt or the desert on the Arabian peninsula? Sometimes either of these are referred to as the Arabian desert.

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The quote is talking about the Arabian desert in the Arabian Peninsula.

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Why would egypts desert be reffered to as the Arabian Desert. Egypt is an African region not arabian. the nile does not run throught middle east it runs through Africa.

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There is a desert around Egypt near the Red Sea area called the Arabian desert. The name was given this by the Greeks.

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Originally posted by multisphinx:
Why would egypts desert be reffered to as the Arabian Desert. Egypt is an African region not arabian. the nile does not run throught middle east it runs through Africa.

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You are right. Its just another Eurocentric, or should I say Greco-centric (applied by Greeks, as Ausar pointed out) twist to an African landscape. The latter would more appropriate, since the ancient Greeks were no pan-Europeanists.

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Originally posted by multisphinx:
Why would egypts desert be reffered to as the Arabian Desert. Egypt is an African region not arabian. the nile does not run throught middle east it runs through Africa.

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Multisphinx, I agree with you it is a misnomer that only causes further confusion, hence my question for Ausar. I think it should just be referred to as the Eastern Desert of Egypt.

The next thing you might say, is why is the Western Desert in Egypt, called the Libyan Desert? Or, why is the Sinai penninsula considered part of Asia?

Your questions are very racist and do not sit well with most native Egyptians.

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Originally posted by multisphinx:
Why would egypts desert be reffered to as the Arabian Desert. Egypt is an African region not arabian. the nile does not run throught middle east it runs through Africa.

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Originally posted by osirion:

Do you have any information on the Hysoks?

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Abraham entered Egypt around 1800 BC and subsequently may have conveyed information of military value to the (Semitic) Hyskos, who invaded and conquered Egypt from 1750-1675 BC. The Hyskos established a parasitical rule of political and economic oppression (a kind of ancient Soviet Union), which prompted the Egyptians to rebel. There was a bloody war, culminating in a siege of the Hyskos stronghold of Avaris in 1550 BC. The warring parties negotiated a settlement in which the Hyskos would be permitted to leave peaceably. This agreement was a mistake on Egypt's part. They should have continued the seige until the Semites starved. Had they done so, history would have taken a different, and probably a much better course through the next 3500 years.

However, not all of them left. Some Hyskos remained secretly and mingled with the Egyptians. These stay-behinds became the Hebrews. One of them, Joseph, wormed his way into the confidence of the Pharaoh and was given the authority of a Viceroy. Using this authority, Joseph levied grain taxes that left the state warehouses full and left the Egyptian people with no local grain reserves. The agricultural practice of the time was to use the grain saved in good years to feed the people in poor ones. That practice, however, was predicated on the assumption that the grain would be doled out to the nation in order to provide for its continued well-being.

However, with a "Jew" holding the keys to the government's warehouses, this assumption completely broke down. Joseph used the poor years to create a famine, which inflated grain prices, which obliged the Egyptians to sell all their property in order to buy food to eat, and, when they had no more property left to sell, to sell themselves into slavery. It was the first time in history (so far as is known) that the Jews spoiled a White country through the application of economic exploitation. They have used this same pattern again and again under one ideological disguise or another, even unto this day.

Let's think about how this trick is done. From where came the power of Joseph to impose taxes? It came from his authority to use the Pharaoh's soldiers. And, since soldiers must eat, the power of the military really originated in the labor of the Egyptian farmer. At first, the Jews probably put out some sort of propaganda about how a centralized, national system of food reserves was "more efficient," so that the Egyptians would go along with it and not rebel early in the enslavement process, when a rebellion might have succeeded. But once the Jews had the grain, and thus the means to feed the soldiers under Joseph's viceroyal command, the Egyptian people were well and truly captured. They were slaves at that point, whether they knew it or not.

And probably, at first, they didn't know it, other than a few farsighted Egyptians who were, no doubt, dismissed by the rest as "extremists" or "alarmists" or "cranks." But then came the poor harvest, and when the people turned to their national government for a disbursement of the saved grain, they found soldiers standing before the warehouses, and they found Hebrew bureaucrats grinning at them from behind desks.

"Would you have grain?" a bureaucrat might say. "Never fear, we're your government, and we are here to help. The National Food Bank is open for business, and on these tablets you will find our goods listed according to quantity and price."

At that point, long after it was too late to save themselves, most of the Egyptians probably understood that they had been betrayed and robbed by their government. They had grown the grain. The government (through Joseph) had taxed most of it, leaving them with false assurances and barely enough to eat. They had probably believed that the taxed grain, minus what the Pharaoh took for the royal tables, would be returned to them without charge during the years of scarcity, as had been done before. Ah, but now that the Jew had taken over, things were different. Now the Egyptians had to pay to get what they had themselves grown, and the prices were very high!

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Why are you asking such clueless questions about elementary geographical names?

The next thing you might say, is why is the Western Desert in Egypt, called the Libyan Desert? Or, why is the Sinai penninsula considered part of Asia?

Your questions are very racist and do not sit well with most native Egyptians.

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How do you know that AE named the desert Libyan because of the historical Libyan tribes? Do you know who named is Libyan? The modern day Western Desert is occupied by bedouin tribes that came into Egypt known as the Bani Hilal and Bani Sulaim. Should we know change the name to the bedouin desert?

From my knowleadge the term ''Arabian'' desert came from a Greco-Roman geographer named Strabo. Strabo was the person who gave the desert around the Red Sea that name.

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Originally posted by Memnokh:
Abraham entered Egypt around 1800 BC and subsequently may have conveyed information of military value to the (Semitic) Hyskos, who invaded and conquered Egypt from 1750-1675 BC. The Hyskos established a parasitical rule of political and economic oppression (a kind of ancient Soviet Union), which prompted the Egyptians to rebel. There was a bloody war, culminating in a siege of the Hyskos stronghold of Avaris in 1550 BC. The warring parties negotiated a settlement in which the Hyskos would be permitted to leave peaceably. This agreement was a mistake on Egypt's part. They should have continued the seige until the Semites starved. Had they done so, history would have taken a different, and probably a much better course through the next 3500 years.

However, not all of them left. Some Hyskos remained secretly and mingled with the Egyptians. These stay-behinds became the Hebrews. One of them, Joseph, wormed his way into the confidence of the Pharaoh and was given the authority of a Viceroy. Using this authority, Joseph levied grain taxes that left the state warehouses full and left the Egyptian people with no local grain reserves. The agricultural practice of the time was to use the grain saved in good years to feed the people in poor ones. That practice, however, was predicated on the assumption that the grain would be doled out to the nation in order to provide for its continued well-being.

However, with a "Jew" holding the keys to the government's warehouses, this assumption completely broke down. Joseph used the poor years to create a famine, which inflated grain prices, which obliged the Egyptians to sell all their property in order to buy food to eat, and, when they had no more property left to sell, to sell themselves into slavery. It was the first time in history (so far as is known) that the Jews spoiled a White country through the application of economic exploitation. They have used this same pattern again and again under one ideological disguise or another, even unto this day.

Let's think about how this trick is done. From where came the power of Joseph to impose taxes? It came from his authority to use the Pharaoh's soldiers. And, since soldiers must eat, the power of the military really originated in the labor of the Egyptian farmer. At first, the Jews probably put out some sort of propaganda about how a centralized, national system of food reserves was "more efficient," so that the Egyptians would go along with it and not rebel early in the enslavement process, when a rebellion might have succeeded. But once the Jews had the grain, and thus the means to feed the soldiers under Joseph's viceroyal command, the Egyptian people were well and truly captured. They were slaves at that point, whether they knew it or not.

And probably, at first, they didn't know it, other than a few farsighted Egyptians who were, no doubt, dismissed by the rest as "extremists" or "alarmists" or "cranks." But then came the poor harvest, and when the people turned to their national government for a disbursement of the saved grain, they found soldiers standing before the warehouses, and they found Hebrew bureaucrats grinning at them from behind desks.

"Would you have grain?" a bureaucrat might say. "Never fear, we're your government, and we are here to help. The National Food Bank is open for business, and on these tablets you will find our goods listed according to quantity and price."

At that point, long after it was too late to save themselves, most of the Egyptians probably understood that they had been betrayed and robbed by their government. They had grown the grain. The government (through Joseph) had taxed most of it, leaving them with false assurances and barely enough to eat. They had probably believed that the taxed grain, minus what the Pharaoh took for the royal tables, would be returned to them without charge during the years of scarcity, as had been done before. Ah, but now that the Jew had taken over, things were different. Now the Egyptians had to pay to get what they had themselves grown, and the prices were very high!

Jerry Aryan

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Thanks Asshole but that Aryan fantasy wasn't entertaining.

It might support Ehret's conclusions. Only this excerpt is not talking about the early Afro-Asiatic speakers but about the movement of Semetic speaking people into areas like Palestine and the Fertile Cresent.

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There was a book I read that had the earliest painted depictions of Semitic people from Sumerians. And as the author says, the painted figures bear a striking resemblence to peoples like the Rashaida. They have brown rather dark skin with long curly to wavy hair and long narrow noses.

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Could you post an excerpt of this?