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[QUOTE]Originally posted by White Nord: [QB] Once again This is what Keita says: "Given all of the above, it is not possible to view the Abydos royal tomb sample as representative of the general southern Upper Egyptian population at the time." Why is it not possible to view the contents of the royal tombs at Abydos, as representative of the "Nilotic" population of Upper Egypt? Obviously because the variation that he found in those tombs cannot be explained by the population of southern Egypt at the time. And where are these non-representative remains from? Outer space? No....Northern Egypt, where their "Maghrebian" and "European" phenotypes are more common. "The predominant craniometric pattern in the Abydos royal tombs is southern (tropical African variant), and this is consistent with what would be expected based on the literature and other results (Keita, 1990). This pattern is seen in both group and unknown analyses. [b]However, lower Egyptian, Maghrebian, [b]and[/b] European patterns are observed also, thus making for great diversity..The Maghreb series does have a modal pattern most similar to late lower dynastic Egyptians (Keita, 1990)."[/b] Keita says: "However, lower Egyptian, Maghrebian, [b]and[/b] European patterns are observed also, thus making for great diversity." Keita also say: . It is clear however from the unknown analyses that the Abydos centroid value is explained primarily by the relatively greater number of crania with northern-Egyptian-Maghreb and European patterns in the series Keita also says: "This may denote the range of variation encompassed by the coastal northern pattern, given its intermediate position, or reflect the presence of middle easterners." Now MK, explain to me why Keita makes a distinction between the "Northern Egyptian Maghreb variant" and the "southern Egyptian Nilotic variant" What does he mean by "coastal North African" and "Maghrebian". No one uses these terms to describe "blacks" and Keita also self-consciously uses the term "European" to describe northern Egyptian morphology. Why? You can dance around all day, but you have to explain why Keita self-consciously and repeatedly uses the term "Eruopean" and "Maghrebian" morphologies. This completely contradicts your Afro-centric views, and clearly demonstrates that Keita distinguished between northern and southern Egyptian morphologies. The genetic diversity of early Egyptian civilization is also supported by Zakrzewski’s research of the morphology of ancient skeletons. “Stature and the pattern of body proportions were investigated in a series of six time-successive Egyptian populations in order to investigate the biological effects on human growth of the development and intensification of agriculture, and the formation of state-level social organization…..Significant differences were found both in stature and in raw long bone length measurements between the early semi-pastoral population and the later intensive agricultural population....[b]The change found in body plan is suggested to be the result of the later groups having a more tropical (Nilotic) form than the preceding populations.” [/b][8] According to Zakrzewski’s research, over time, the population of the Nile Delta, which is in the north, changed gradually from the northern/Mediterranean pattern to a mixture of the southern and northern pattern. Otherwise, she would not have concluded that “later groups” had a more “tropical (Nilotic) form than the preceding population.” In other words, the “preceding population” of the Nile Delta was not “tropical Nilotic” in their general body morphology, but had a morphology that distinguished them from sub-Saharan Africans. Finally, the genetic evidence from 4 papers that I posted are certainly not outdated. What is outdated is the "Dynastic theory" which claims that Mesopotamian migrants established Egyptian civilization. No one is arguing that. Your quotes about the Badrians are irrelevant, because we are not discussing southern Egypt, we are discussing northern Egypt. The increasing and soon to be overwhelming research is that West Asians migrated to North Africa in the upper Paleolithic, thousands of years before the establishment of Pharonic civilization. Keita has not conducted research on Paleolithic Egypt and despite this, he suggests the existence of "middle easterners" in the northern Nile Valley. You have posted no research that contradicts this view, and you have not explained the distinction between the "Nilotic" morphologies in the south and the "Maghrebian" and "European" morphologies that Keita uses to distinguish the "Northern Egyptian Maghreb" variant. So, I want an explanation for this distinction....no word games.....just explain why Keita uses such different distinctions to describe the variation in the pre-dynastic Nile Valley population. [/QB][/QUOTE]
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