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[QUOTE]Originally posted by The Explorer: [QB] [QUOTE]Originally posted by Chimu: Yawn, your reposting of earlier quotes does not change the fact that you have no direct evidence (as in an actual genetic explanation) that would indicate that one was definitely the derived version and the other the ancestral version.[/QUOTE]I just gave you an [i]actual[/i] *genetic explanation*, the one actually [i]published[/i] and conducted by a group of geneticists, and not a [i]personal correspondence[/i] with one participant, as to why the most parsimonious explanation of OAC2 variant--implicated in Sans and later in Europeans and East Asians--is one wherein it could only have been a [i]derived[/i] allele, as opposed to the upstream one. This explanation is *supported* by the study, as cited! You simply did not understand, nor capable of addressing the point brought forth head on, and so, you just chose to ignore it. Norton's [i]personal[/i] correspondence to you, does NOT address the points I raised, and so, you cannot use that as some sort of rebuttal. The onus is on either you or Norton to explain why that pattern of findings is so, [i]other than[/i] the one provided by both myself, [i]AND[/i] the [i]published[/i] journal itself. Your response, or rather non-response, is immaterial to what I just raised about the patterns of DNA findings in the samples studied. [/QB][/QUOTE]
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