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[QUOTE]Originally posted by Clyde Winters: [QB] [QUOTE]Originally posted by Djehuti: [qb] [QUOTE]Originally posted by Tyrannosaurus: [qb] Incidentally, what do you think the original Indo-Europeans looked like? And why did Indo-European languages come to be spoken by people as diverse as black Indians, Nordics, and tanned Mediterraneans/West Asians (Greeks, Turks, Italians, etc.)?[/qb][/QUOTE]Well since linguistics suggests that the homeland of proto-Indo-European lies somewhere in the Russian steppes, then its speakers likely looked Eastern European or 'Russian'(?) As for how Indo-European languages expanded and took over so large an expanse of Eurasia, well that is still a matter of debate to this day but when considering the spread of other widely spoken language families such as Afrasian or Niger-Congo (Bantu especially) one would say it had something to do with either food production, technology, or both. [QUOTE][qb]BTW, do you think there is a possibility that the Egyptians or nearby ancient civilizations ever encountered white or "Mongoloid" people? [/qb][/QUOTE]'White' people certainly, considering Europe's proximity, but I don't know about East Asians. [QUOTE]Originally posted by Clyde Winters: [qb] Indo-European languages are spoken among Indians and Europeans because of Alexander Great. You see, the connection between these languages is Greek and Sanskrit. These languages are related because when Panini wrote a grammar of Sanskrit , which was a lingua franca, Greeks were living India and spoken in the region Panini lived. Panini even mentions Greeks. Because of the numerous Pakrits spoken in India at this time along with Persian and Greek elements and shared vocabulary were included in Panini's grammar that allow us to see a connection between Sanskrit and the other Indo-European languages. [/qb][/QUOTE]This is absolutely absurd. Indo-European languages spoken in India has nothing to do Alexander the Great no more than Afrasian languages spoken in southwest Asia had to do with Thutmose conquering the Levant! The Indo-Iranian branch of Indo-European was spoken in Central Asia for at least 5,000 years, and it's entry to Indian subcontinent was 2,000 to 3,000 years. [/qb][/QUOTE]If you know so much answer these questions. 1a. Explain why Alexander the Greats introduction of the Greek language to India can not account for the relationship between Sanskrit and Greek. 1.Please explain to the people what Indian languages are related to the European languages ? 2. What is the relationship between the Iranian and Indo-European languages? 3.Are Iranian and Indo-European languages related? If so how are they related? 4. Are Iranian languages, Indo-European languages? 5. Where was this 5000 year old site where Indo-Iranian was spoken? . [/QB][/QUOTE]
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