I read somewhere that the called "Spartacus" might have been Berber. It is, in fact, a question of translation. Spartacus is generally known as Thracian. Plutarch said he is Thracian. But he precised with "of Nomadic/Numidian origin". Like you see, some sources translated the sentence as "Nomadic" while other sources has translated it as "Numidian".
What is your opinions?
Thanks in advance
alTakruri Member # 10195
posted
Nomads exist everywhere. That certain nomads of North Africa were dubbed "Numidians" does not make for every nomad being a Numidian any more so than making every barbarian a Berber. But do yaou have the precise Plutarch citation? Perusing the primary untranslated document seems neccessary then to ascertain any lexical difference in spelling of the two or same word(s) for nomad/Numidian.
Mazigh Member # 8621
posted
That is a good point. I know that a nomad is not the same as "Numidian", but some translated as "Nomad" and others translated it as "Numidian".
But the good point, is that we should have the original Greek statement, and seeing what he did mean.
posted
^ No. The Thracians were an entire different people that inhabited the northeastern region of the Balkans in what is today Bulgaria. Though the Thracians did play an important influence on Greek history. The jury is still out on whether or not the ancient Macedonians were Greeks though. A lot of it is politically charged. For example, many modern day Macedonians who want a separate identity from Greece cite evidence that their ancient ancestors were non-Greeks while the Greeks cite evidence they were Greek though biased to the fact that the Macedonians were not only the first nation-state in Europe but the first to fully conquer Greece.