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[QUOTE]Originally posted by the lioness: [QB] Because of the many indications that non-Semitic languages predominated in Mesopotamia and all around its northern and eastern flanks in the pre-state eras—and that Akkadian therefore was likely intrusive to that region—the second solution seems by far the more probable of the two. The Levant regions, as the part of Asia nearest and more directly connected to Africa, also make much better sense as the proto-Semitic territory, considering the solely African locations of all the rest of the Afrasan family. However Semitic is distinct from all the other afro-asiatic languages except the languages(berber&egyptian) that make the north-afroasiatic branch with semitic and there are as high as 40% j1 amongst copts and berbers. The problem is that pre proto semitic migrations are too early pre-historic,in the opposite of late ie migrations,to conclude that they emerged really in ethiopia. For example countries like tchad also contain 2 aa branches(berber and tchadic)so why tchad would not be the aa homeland same as ethiopia which have also 2 aa branches(omotic and kushitic)? or for ie languages why balkan would not be considered ie homeland with as many as native branches as 3-4(ilyrian,greek,paleobalkanic,messapic)branches? The differences between Chadic, Omotic, Cushitic and Semitic, were wider than those seen between any members of the Indo-European family and as wide as some of the differences seen within and between separate language families, for example, Indo-European and Altaic. distinct languages in ethiopia that have some pre proto semitic lexical superstratum(kushitic)or grammatical substratum(ethiosemic=south semitic)are not the result of Ethiopia being aa languages homeland the same as Balkan or Anatolia not being ie homeland despite the historical presence in these 2 regions of very distinct ie languages(messapic,ilyrian,greek and paleobalkan branches for the balkan and hittite,armenian and palaic branches in anatolia) Afrasian speaking groups have a large amount of J1 whereas Nilo-Saharian speaking dont have J1 but have E1b1b. there is no attested historial semitic language in Sudan or Egypt(except linguisitc vestiges of the various semitic migrants to Egypt:amurites,hyksos,canaanites,assyrians,habiru, khilmu,arameans,hashu,qedar,hebrews...) And there is not a single semitic branch of ethiopia but rather an offspring of south arabian which itself is an offspring of southern group of western semitic branch. Andrew Kitchen and others using Bayesian techniques in phylogenetic analysis identifies a place of origin for Semitic in the Levant, giving rise to the most basal of Semitic languages in Akkadian: "Bayesian phylogenetic analysis of Semitic languages identifies an Early Bronze Age origin of Semitic in the Near East" South Semitic may have been introduced to Ethiopia sometime before the 8th century BC. This is also supported by the presence of nouns in proto Semitic that seemingly make an African origin for the language impossible - ice, oak, horse and camel.[citation needed] The camel[8] and horse[9] did not arrive in Africa until nearly two thousand years after Semitic languages were being written in the Mesopotamia area. Other more recent work suggests Syria/Mesopotamia as the homeland for proto Semitic, due to the flora and fauna described by it, which include oak, pistachio and almond trees and the horse. The presence of ice and four different words for hill also suggest a colder, more mountainous area than Arabia. Eblaite, one of the oldest Semitic languages, when deciphered turned out to have almost no non-Afroasiatic nouns in its lexicon, suggesting a very long presence in the Syria area. Bitumen and naphtha were also well known and have root words, and these are resources not found in Africa or Arabia, but commonly in the northern parts of the Levant. E is mostly connected with Africanic languages(Nilo-Saharan+Niger-Kongo),african phenotype,african religions and african culture . J is mostly connected with afro-asiatic languages,mediterranean phenotype and semitic culture and religions. As J peoples historically introduced agriculture,abrahamic religions,mediterranean phenotype and alphabet to Africa it's logical to think that they also introduced aa languages to Africa in prehistorical times. Semitic languages are closer to indo-european languages(both being apophonic,inflective languages witth shared lexical stems and grammatical features as universally very rare dual and feminine pronouns)than to kushitic languages for example as kushitic langauges are agglutinative languages not apophonic inflective ones. P58 actually imposed the Semitic language on M34, not the opposite as many think. The idea that Nilo-Saharan was more wide spread some time in ancient time isn't a new one...Ehret puts his supposedly 9000 year old pastorals in the Sahel as (proto-)Nilo-Saharan. According to him they were supposedly marginalised and/or assimilated by incoming Afro-Asiatic speakers (of which the ones in that area would later become proto-Cushitic speakers). [/QB][/QUOTE]
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