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Because some fools don't know how to make their own thread about the race of kemet
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by JoshuaConnerMoon: [QB] Indo-Aryans moved into northern India from Pakistan (mostly corresponding to the modern Punjab region, but a few more southern sites), not the Pontic-Caspian Steppe (the hypothetical Proto-Indo-European homeland.) The time between Indo-Aryans moving into northern India and the PIE dispersal(s) is 2000-3000 years. I think you've completely missed how Indo-European culture, including languages spread. There's [i]very little if any genetic continuity[/i] between PIE's and Indo-Aryans (as with Indo-Iranians and other groups that split millennia after PIE). Look up elite dominance model of how languages spread. "David Anthony, in his "revised Steppe hypothesis" notes that the spread of the Indo-European languages probably did not happen through "chain-type folk migrations," but by the [b]introduction of these languages by ritual and political elites, which are emulated by large groups of people[/b]." "A relatively small immigrant elite population can encourage widespread language shift among numerically dominant indigenes in a non-state or pre-state context if the elite employs a specific combination of encouragements and punishments." (Anthony, 2007) https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-Aryan_migration_theory#Anthropology:_elite_recruitment_and_language_shift The average Indo-Aryan who settled in northern India c. 1900 - 1500 BCE did not look like someone from the Pontic-Caspian Steppe, or eastern Europe. [/QB][/QUOTE]
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