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Because some fools don't know how to make their own thread about the race of kemet
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by Nodnarb: [QB] [QUOTE]Originally posted by JoshuaConnerMoon: [qb] [QUOTE]Originally posted by Nodnarb: [qb] [QUOTE]Originally posted by JoshuaConnerMoon: [qb] Indo-Aryans moved into northern India from Pakistan (mostly corresponding to the modern Punjab region, but a few more southern sites), not the Pontic-Caspian Steppe (the hypothetical Proto-Indo-European homeland.) The time between Indo-Aryans moving into northern India and the PIE dispersal(s) is 2000-3000 years. I think you've completely missed how Indo-European culture, including languages spread. There's [i]very little if any genetic continuity[/i] between PIE's and Indo-Aryans (as with Indo-Iranians and other groups that split millennia after PIE). Look up elite dominance model of how languages spread. "David Anthony, in his "revised Steppe hypothesis" notes that the spread of the Indo-European languages probably did not happen through "chain-type folk migrations," but by the [b]introduction of these languages by ritual and political elites, which are emulated by large groups of people[/b]." "A relatively small immigrant elite population can encourage widespread language shift among numerically dominant indigenes in a non-state or pre-state context if the elite employs a specific combination of encouragements and punishments." (Anthony, 2007) https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-Aryan_migration_theory#Anthropology:_elite_recruitment_and_language_shift The average Indo-Aryan who settled in northern India c. 1900 - 1500 BCE did not look like someone from the Pontic-Caspian Steppe, or eastern Europe. [/qb][/QUOTE]One linguist's hypothesis on how Indo-European may have spread, as quoted by Wikipedia, is still not going to save your ass from the reality of northern Indians and North Africans having substantial levels of light-skin alleles of recent (>20 kya) West Eurasian origin. A reality which you persistently evade. [IMG]https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/8/8e/Ala111Thr_allele_frequency_distribution0.png[/IMG] [b]How does that square with your apparent belief that the presence of these alleles (and the resulting lighter skin color) in these populations isn't due to recent admixture?[/b] [/qb][/QUOTE]We don't actually know where that light skin mutation/derived allele arose, although it probably was somewhere in West Eurasia. I'm simply explaining its moderate-to-high frequency in North Africans + North Indians as selection, rather than admixture. I'm not proposing a separate source (parallel evolution) of the mutation in each population, it obviously spread out from a single centre by gene flow. However, selection can explain its high frequency rather than mass migration/large-scale admixture. [/qb][/QUOTE]...so in other words, its current near-fixture in parts of North Africa and India isn't due to admixture, but since the alleles originated somewhere in West Eurasia, they would have needed to obtain them through admixture. :rolleyes: If you're trying to portray this as being like the presence of African sickle-cell haplotypes in certain European countries, notice their presence in these countries doesn't reach the same level of fixture as the light-skin alleles in North Africa and northern India. [IMG]http://anthro.palomar.edu/synthetic/images/map_of_sickle_cell_frequencies.gif[/IMG] [/QB][/QUOTE]
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