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[QUOTE]Originally posted by zarahan- aka Enrique Cardova: [QB] Doug says: [b]But make a whole lot of noise about "Eurasian" genes..[/b] Indeed some of the establishment is using double standards and labeling games. The point is well supported in the scientific literature. It is interesting as Keita notes below that even among scholars precisely defining a category such as "European" can be often problematic. Certain ideological agendas can be at play among scholars. Keita referred to these ideological agendas when he noted that the authors of one DNA study removed non-European samples in order to manipulate final results to match up with their preferred "racial" model- quote- "The data in effect were tailored to fit into the traditional racial schema." (Keita and Kittles 1997- The persistence of) And what Keita says about researchers using a stereotypical "true negro" construct, but avoid defining a "true white" also applies to DNA studies. (The Persistence Of) These issues are quite current, are noted by top scholars in the field, and cannot merely be waved away. [IMG]http://www.webster-dictionary.org/i/dict/105/524614-point.gif[/IMG] [i]“Europe can serve as a good example. If it is asked who are the “indigenous” Europeans, there would probably be a request to clarify the time depth, given that modern humans are not native to Europe and arrived there from elsewhere. (The next question therefore is at what point do they become “European” and what precisely does this mean: current limb proportions, skin color, genetic variation, language, the presence of Neanderthal DNA?) Does “indigenousness” require residency back to the upper Paleolithic, the Neolithic, and so on? Is it only a biological phenomenon requiring a “drop” of Neanderthal blood or a linguistic phenomenon requiring the speaking of Indo-European languages? Or if the question is who were the indigenous inhabitants of northern, southern, western, eastern, or central Europe, the answers would necessarily take on a different tone, based on other information. Are the Basque speakers the indigenous inhabitants of Europe, if currently spoken language phyla and families are used as “population markers,” a problematic assumption? Basque predates Indo-European, and there is some indication of some level of biological distinctiveness (Alonso et al. 2005)... But in the case of Africa there seems to be a problem with diversity for some scholars. The Indo-European language phylum, in the standard evidence-based interpretation, did not originate in the European heartland (Ehret, personal communication, 2010). Most people in Europe today speak Indo-European languages—now considered as “indigenous” as Basque. What does it mean for the concept of European if Europe’s major language phylum did not originate in what is considered Europe proper? How much of the spread of early Indo-European was due to outright settler colonization and how much to language shift—these are questions that will likely be debated for some time. Are the Finns, Saami, and Hungarians (or their “original” ancestors)—all non-Indo-European-speaking—to be considered Europeans? Apparently so. Contrast this with ideas held by some about Berbers as “Eurasians” who speak a language family that belongs to a phylum whose proto-parent emerged in Africa using standard historical linguistic criteria and whose major history and differentiation occurred in Africa (Ehret 2002; Greenberg 1963; Nichols 1997).”[/i] -- S. O. Y. Keita. 2010. Biocultural Emergence of the Amazigh in Africa: Comment on Frigi et al. Human Biology, (82:4) [/QB][/QUOTE]
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