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Vedic Origins of the Europeans: the Children of Danu (Questions)
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by coolnight: [QB] [QUOTE]Originally posted by Djehuti: [/qb][/QUOTE]Well from the linguistic perspective, the way IE languages are distributed geographically--- with the majority of IE language subfamilies found in the European subcontinent from an early date with the Balto-Slavic subfamily of eastern Europe being the largest and most diverse; and the largest and most diverse subfamily of all being Indo-Iranian of Iran, Afghanistan, and India and originally including most of Central Asia, it becomes apparent that the homeland of Proto-IE had lie somewhere in the Russian steppes between Europe and Central Asia. The glottochronology i.e. time depth of IE as well as the reconstruction of Proto-IE words for flora and fauna and environmental aspects also support the Russian steppes. But the genetic perspective is somewhat more complicated and not as straightforward. The other competing major hypothesis is that of Collin Renfrew's 'Anatolian Origin' which attempts to tie Proto-IE with the spread of agriculture into Europe. The major problem with this hypothesis is that it conflicts with all the major linguistic evidence I just cited above not to mention the fact that the Anatolian Origin hypothesis only fits IE speakers in Europe but not speakers from other areas of Western Eurasia. However considering the recent genetic findings [URL=http://www.sciencemag.org/news/2015/02/mysterious-indo-european-homeland-may-have-been-steppes-ukraine-and-russia]supporting[/URL] the Steppe origins including Ukraine just north of Anatolia, it becomes clear that the spread of IE in Europe was closely associated or rather entangled with Anatolians and others in the Balkan area. As for South Asia i.e. the Indian subcontinent neither of the two major ancestral components--ASI and ANI seem to have any direct ties with IE languages. ANI if anything has to with the spread of Neolithic culture from Southwest Asia, namely Iran, while ASI is an even older aboriginal component. Many geneticsts agree that if anything Indo-Aryan languages in India post-date ANI by at least several centuries and have their origin further north in Central Asia and linguistic evidence shows that instead of entering India via the Khyber pass from Pakistan, instead the earliest Indo-Aryan speakers came from the Kashmir and Swat Valley area. Genetically there is actually very little if any influence from these Central Asians among Vedic Indians, and that most of the Central Asian genetic influence among Indians today actually date to later historical times post-Vedic era. [/QB][/QUOTE] I have no idea where the Indo European languages originate from or where the PIE homeland could be. Would the Indo European language have to originate from a single place? What if there are two seperate origins for the Indo European language spoken in Europe and South Asia and the connection between the same/similar/shared language spoke between both groups (Europeans/South Asians) is Indirect rather then direct. I mean rather than a single origin. A single separate homeland from where the indo european language originated. Could there have been two homelands? Both somehow indirectly connected to the other. Or Maybe Europeans and South Asians got indo european language from the Same source independent of each other rather than each other or one from the other. Because the Europeans try and spin it as if they own the indo european language. As if they are the source of it and the presence of the indo european language in South Asia therefore means a direct connection to them (Europeans). When it may be the homeland/the source of this language was not European in origin. I mean just cos europeans found out they speak the same language as some other groups in the world it does not mean it came from them. Although that that is what they try to portray. From what I have read of xyyman's comments he is one on here who disagrees with the Kurgan/Steppe hypothesis. ''linguistic evidence shows that instead of entering India via the Khyber pass from Pakistan, instead the earliest Indo-Aryan speakers came from the Kashmir and Swat Valley area. '' interesting. Which do you support? ''that most of the Central Asian genetic influence among Indians today actually date to later historical times post-Vedic era'' yes this appears to be the case. However by central asian influence what/who do we mean? Do we mean various ethnically distinct/different tribes that belonged to a seperate race but who were settled in central asia at some point or other or are we talking about central asian in terms of tribes/groups who were genetically/ethnically closely related to each other. I mean europeans were also once settled in central asian. That region has seen many groups emigrate out and many outsiders have settled in. Is it likely some of the central asian influence is old and some or a more recent origin. The caucasion element in South Asia is the most complex to figure out. Nobody gets confused with the non-caucasion elements. [/QB][/QUOTE]
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