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Asar Imhotep's book Nsw.t Bjt.j
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by Fourty2Tribes: [QB] [QUOTE]Originally posted by Swenet: [qb] Also, what plays a big part in their circular reasoning, is that Negro-Egyptian is held together by some assumptions and claims, which Negro-Egyptian exponents tend overlook. For instance, the linguistic commonalities don't necessarily justify their conclusion that there must have been a Negro-Egyptian language family. We know that pastoralists from northeast Africa (e.g. Tenereans) were close to the Proto-Bantu homeland during the formation of Proto-Bantu (hence, the presence of R1b-V88 in Cameroon). These people came from the Middle Nile area and made an impact on the region, so merely listing linguistic commonalities seems arbitrary. [IMG]http://olmec98.net/africa-cattle-sites.png[/IMG] As someone who studies archaeological cultures and relationships, I know it's a recurrent theme that you cannot tell direction from commonalities. In other words, you can't take a bunch of commonalities and draw up a convenient narrative about the direction of influence. You have to take different scenarios and show that your explanation best explains the evidence. Negro-Egyptian supporters conveniently skip over that phase and pretend they're doing science. It's embarrassing how low standards they seem to have for what passes as valid evidence. They will even say that they're doing textbook linguistics, and that Greenberg and others are the ones who are going on a limb. If so, then why are Negro-Egyptian speakers invisible archaeologically and genetically? Where are the Negro-Egyptian haplogroups, genes, subsistence strategies, lithics, etc.? So, you have it all worked out that Berber and Semitic are definitely not related to Egyptian, but you can't even tell me where the 'true negro-Egyptian ancestors' of Egyptians are, in the archaeological record? We just have to take their word for it that Negro-Egyptian speakers existed ~10ky ago, just because they have a list of linguistic commonalities that is open to more than one interpretation. [/qb][/QUOTE]You are still doing it. Linear reasoning is deciding that A is better than B so building off of A. Circular reasoning is saying that A is better than B but B must still be possible because of C. People do it to me when I call white people albinos. I say white people are albinos because the same geneses reduce melanin in nature then someone wants to bring up ultra violet sun rays. You are doing the same with linguistics. You aren't using liner logic to explain C with D instead you are going into a circle to disprove A. That is the very definition of circular reasoning. You just accused someone of doing it before doing it yourself twice. [/QB][/QUOTE]
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