...
Post A Reply
my profile
|
directory
login
|
register
|
search
|
faq
|
forum home
»
EgyptSearch Forums
»
Deshret
»
Who were the original Fulani
» Post A Reply
Post A Reply
Login Name:
Password:
Message Icon:
Message:
HTML is not enabled.
UBB Code™ is enabled.
[QUOTE]Originally posted by rasol: [QB] [QUOTE] How does a Semetic language continues to exist but a Hamitic language doesn't? [/QUOTE]Any linguist can answer this. You can't because you don't study linguistics. You get your miscomprehensions from the Bible, only. As proven by... [QUOTE]What ever happened to a "Jasphethic" language.[/QUOTE]^ There is no such thing. This term comes from the Bible, which is not a linguistic textbook, and is not trying to classify languages. Nor did linguists ever use the term "Jasphethic", to discribe a group of related languages. [QUOTE]If Hamitic language doesn't exist, why is there a such thing as Afroasiatic which implies "Hamitic-Semetic".[/QUOTE]Because it doesn't. For such a twofold schizm to exist, there would have to be a clear separation within the language family such that every language within it, would be classed as either one or the other, for some reason based on LINGUISTICS, and not on Bible stories. For instance, some linguists believe that Proto Berber langauge derives from Chadic, others that Proto Berber derives from Semitic. Some believe that Proto Semitic derives from Egyptian, and others say it derives from Cushitic. There is no logical division of the language family into classes - especially - such that Semitic, which is one of the youngest, and most derived members, can be placed [b]at the root[/b] of it. Semitic is no more privledged therein than Berber, nor can all non Semitic languages within this family be lumped together based on linguistics. So what you have in effect is a Cushitic/Omotic/Chadic/Ancient Egyptian/Semitic and Berber language family. Semitic is merely one of six sub-groups. And there is no linguistic logic in lumping the other 5 together and separating them from Semitic either. The Biblical use of Hamitic is folk ethnene, *not* a language. For the Bible - West Africans, whom you hate, are just as "Hamitic". Also there are some Asiatics of Palestine and Mesopotamia [!] who are classed as Hamites. The Bible writers knew nothing in general of structure of the langauges of these peoples. [QUOTE] Don't tell me you don't know that Afroasiatic stands for Ham-Shem. [/QUOTE][b]Only in your ill educated mind[/b], where the Bible is imagined as the definitive linguistic text, [and and excuse for not having to pick a text book and learn something] even though its writers had absolutely *no knowledge* of the overwhelming majory of the languages of Africa or relationships between them. [QUOTE]This is not about a so-called language family. How can someone take a language that undeniably come from Ham and apply it as Shem or Semetic.[/QUOTE]^ Boring nonsense.....repetition of same error. All Semitic langauges stem from common African langauge. There is no division between mythical sons of Noah Ham and Shem....in *linguistics*. The bible is is not a language text. PLEASE PICK UP A TEXT BOOK ON *LANGUAGE*. Until you understand this, you will continue to make basic errors. [/QB][/QUOTE]
Instant Graemlins
Instant UBB Code™
What is UBB Code™?
Options
Disable Graemlins in this post.
*** Click here to review this topic. ***
Contact Us
|
EgyptSearch!
(c) 2015 EgyptSearch.com
Powered by UBB.classic™ 6.7.3